Okay. An RTP question for you VOIP guys out there...

Let's say I am an attacker.

Caller 1 sends a Timestamp of 111111 and a sequence of 5000 and I pick up on that 'somehow'. If I were to send a message as 'Caller 1' from my attacking platform to 'Caller 2' with a higher timestamp/sequence number, would Caller 2 hear 'empty' data until my configured timestamp of my injected RTP? or would the injection audio be heard by Caller 2 immediately?

I'm in the process of building a VM lab to see the answer to this, but it's tough to do with kids .

Let me know if I've been too vague and I'll try to rephrase. Thanks!